21. A consensus sequence is associated with __________, while a signal sequence is part of __________.
(A) translation, hnRNAs
(B) DNA, translation
(C) transcription, a snurp
(D) hnRNA, a snurp
(E) spliceosomes, translation

22. One would expect to find steroid hormone receptors in the
(A) plasma membrane
(B) endoplasmic reticulum
(C) nucleus
(D) cytosol
(E) none of the above

23. Plants produce energy in their
I. cytosol
II. mitochondria
III. chloroplast
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) II and III
(E) I, II, and III

24. Select the correct order of events in a person’s response to a bacterial infection:
(A) macrophage ingestion – Helper T cell activation – B cell activation – clonal formation
(B) clonal formation – Helper T cell activation – B cell activation – macrophage ingestion
(C) macrophage ingestion – B cell activation – T helper cell activation – clonal formation
(D) Helper T cell activation – B cell activation – macrophage ingestion – clonal formation
(E) B cell activation – T helper cell activation – clonal formation – macrophage ingestion

25. People who have an extra X chromosome could have gotten it through
(A) non-disjunction
(B) transposition
(C) transduction
(D) crossing over
(E) all of the above

26. The HIV virus infects mostly
(A) complement cells
(B) red blood cells
(C) T-killer cells
(D) T-helper cells
(E) all of the above

27. Which of the following functions can be attributed to DNA polymerase?
(A) It replaces RNA nucleotides with DNA nucleotides
(B) It fixes errors in the replication of DNA
(C) It ads nucleotides to the growing chain at the 3′ end
(D) It is used in the polymerase chain reaction
(E) All of the above are true

28. During translation, the first amino acid
(A) occupies the aminyl site first, then the peptidyl site
(B) occupies the aminyl site before the attachment of the large portion of the ribosome
(C) of the polypeptide chain is methionine
(D) all of the above
(E) none of the above

29. A signal sequence
(A) is a sequence of DNA that begins transcription
(B) is a sequence of RNA that is spliced out in the nucleus
(C) is a sequence of DNA that directs a protein to certain organelles
(D) is a sequence of DNA that attracts transcription factors
(E) is the sequence of tRNA that bonds with the codon of mRNA at the ribosome

30. Northern blotting is used with
(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) hnRNA
(D) ssDNA
(E) all of the above

ANSWERS: SAT BIOLOGY (MOLECULAR) SAMPLE PAPER
21. E
22. C
23. E
24. A
25. A
26. D
27. E
28. C
29. C
30. B

11. Which of the following statements about the lac operon is NOT true?

(A) RNA polymerase can be blocked by an active repressor protein attached to the operator
(B) RNA polymerase attaches at a site on the DNA strand, known as the promoter
(C) There is a regulatory gene that is downstream from the structural genes that can inhibit transcription
(D) The regulatory gene produces the active repressor
(E) The repressor protein can be activated by a substance like lactose, called the inducer

12. Which of the following statements about the HIV virus is NOT true?
(A) The viral nucleotides contain ribose
(B) HIV contains uracil, not thymine
(C) HIV infection begins with the entrance of the virus into the host when the gp 120 and gp 41 function to pull the virus across the plasma membrane
(D) HIV makes the host cell produce reverse transcriptase
(E) Immunization against HIV has proven difficult because the virus mutates so rapidly

13. All of the following are means of posttranscriptional control in eukaryotes EXCEPT
(A) the capping of the 58 end with a modified guanosine triphosphate
(B) the addition of a poly-A tail to the 38 end
(C) the cutting out of introns by a spliceosome
(D) the ligation of exons by DNA polymerase
(E) the attachment of signal sequences for direction to specific destinations

14. Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs)?
(A) Suspects whose fragments do not match any other fragments at a crime scene can be vindicated
(B) The polymerase chain reaction can be used to produce more copies of DNA obtained at a crime scene before RFLP analysis
(C) Most RFLPs use radioactive probes
(D) Most RFLPs occur because of the repetitive nature of DNA
(E) With the advent of PCR technology, restriction enzymes are no longer needed to perform RFLP analysis

15. The number of tRNA molecules required by eukaryotic organisms to ferry around the amino acids is
(A) 64
(B) 63
(C) 45
(D) 23
(E) 20

16. A student using a compound microscope with a 10X ocular lens and a 4X objective lens measured his field of view with a plastic ruler and found it to be 4 mm. He then placed some of his cheek cells on a slide, found them using the 4X objective lens and switched to the 40X objective lens. He counted twelve cells, side by side, that stretched from one side of the field of view to the other. What is the best estimate for the diameter of a cheek cell?

(A) 0.033 mm
(B) 0.132 mm
(C) 0.0132 mm
(D) 0.0033 mm
(E) 1.32 mm

17. In fruit flies, the gray body color is dominant to the black, and long wings are dominant to short. If you crossed a gray, short-winged fly to a black, long-winged fly and got 25 percent gray, long wing; 25 percent gray, short wing; 25 percent black, short wing; and 25 percent black, long wing, what were the genotypes of the parental flies?
(A) Ggll and GgLl
(B) Ggll and ggLl
(C) GGll and ggLl
(D) GGll and GgLl
(E) Ggll and ggLL

18. Which of the following statements about mitochondria is (are) true?

(A) Mitochondria exist in all eukaryotes
(B) Mitochondria exist in bacteria and plants
(C) Mitochondria exist in animals, plants, and fungi
(D) Both (B) and (C) are true
(E) Both (A) and (C) are true

19. The flowing cytoplasm of an active amoeba is
(A) propelled by microfilaments for lipid synthesis
(B) an adaptation for extracellular digestion
(C) composed of microtubules and extracellular matrix
(D) dependent on microfilaments for intracellular circulation
(E) required for nerve transmission

20. In the earthworm, the efficiency of food absorption is increased by the presence of
(A) the liver, which stores extra food in addition to making metabolic enzymes
(B) the cecum, which stores unsuitable intake for excretion
(C) infolds, which add surface area to the intestine
(D) malphigian tubules, which increase the density of the food
(E) the liver, which absorbs excess sugar and stores it as glycogen

NSWERS: SAT BIOLOGY SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

11. C
12. D
13. D
14. E
15. C
16. A
17. B
18. E
19. D
20. C

1. In human DNA, adenine (A) makes up approximately 30.9% of the bases, and guanine (G) makes up approximately 19.9% of the bases; therefore the percentage thymine (T) and cytosine (C) are
(A) 29.4% T and 19.8% C
(B) 29.8% T and 29.8% C
(C) 19.8% T and 19.8% C
(D) 19.8% T and 29.4% C
(E) 24.9% T and 18.2% C

2. If the chromosomes of a eukaryotic cell were lacking telomerase, the cell would
(A) have a greater potential to become cancerous than one with telomerase
(B) become increasingly shorter with each cycle of replication
(C) not produce okazaki fragments
(D) be unable to take up extraneous DNA from the surrounding solution
(E) produce okazaki fragments

3. Which of the following statements concerning transcription and translation in eukaryotic cells is NOT correct?
(A) Transcription results in the production of mRNA, whereas translation results in the production of polypeptides
(B) Transcription occurs in the nucleus, whereas translation occurs in the cytoplasm
(C) Transcription uses DNA as a template, whereas translation uses mRNA as a template
(D) Transcription results in the production of polypeptides, whereas translation results in the production of mRNA
(E) both (B) and (D)

4. The open, less compacted form of DNA that is available for transcription is known as the
(A) chromatin
(B) heterochromatin
(C) promotor
(D) operator
(E) euchromatin

5. A sequence on a DNA molecule that recognizes specific transcription factors that can stimulate transcription of nearby genes is known as the
(A) promotor
(B) operator
(C) enhancer
(D) euchromatin
(E) none of these

6. During the stage in which insertion of eukaryotic DNA into the plasmid vector occurs, the sticky ends formed by digestion of both DNA types with the same restriction enzyme may join in a recombinant molecule because
(A) the eukaryotic DNA and plasmid DNA will have the same sequence
(B) the eukaryotic DNA and plasmid DNA will have complementary sequences
(C) the plasmid DNA can join with any eukaryotic DNA, regardless of sequence
(D) the plasmid DNA and the eukaryotic DNA cannot join together due to differences in the structure of their DNA molecules
(E) both (B) and (C)

7. Which of the following statements is NOT true of restriction enzymes?
(A) Restriction enzymes protect their bacterial host against intruding foreign DNA from viruses or other bacterial cells
(B) Most restriction enzymes are named after the bacterial organism from which they were first isolated
(C) Each restriction enzyme recognizes a specific sequence of bases on the DNA molecule
(D) Each restriction enzyme cuts at random locations along the DNA molecule
(E) all are correct

8. The uptake of naked DNA from solution by bacterial cells is known as
(A) transcription
(B) electroporation
(C) transduction
(D) translation
(E) transformation

9. The classification of organisms into kingdoms has come under debate in recent years, with most of the debate focused on the
(A) algae and fungi
(B) prokaryotes and simple eukaryotes
(C) algae and plants
(D) fungi and plants
(E) none of these

10. In the steps leading up to the origin of life on earth, early protobionts could not have evolved into living cells without both
(A) competition for resources and the development of hereditary mechanisms
(B) a semipermeable membrane and a nucleus
(C) a semipermeable membrane and the ability to catalyze chemical reactions
(D) a nucleus and the ability to catalyze chemical reactions
(E) both (A) and (D)

ANSWERS: SAT BIOLOGY SAMPLE TEST
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. E
5. C
6. B
7. D
8. E
9. B
10. A

6. The most reduced form of Carbon is
(A) O₂
(B) CO₂
(C) H₂
(D) CH₄

7. The most oxidized form of Carbon is
(A) O₂
(B) CO₂
(C) H₂
(D) CH₄

8. Most of the dry mass in the trunk of a tree is basically derived from
(A) glucose
(B) hydrocarbons
(C) CO₂
(D) amino acids

9. Most of the cholesterol in human’s bloodstream is produced by the
(A) kidney
(B) liver
(C) lung
(D) large intestine

10. Which from the following is NOT a function of lipids?
(A) DNA replication
(B) storing energy
(C) signaling
(D) acting as structural components of cell membranes

ANSWERS: BIOCHEMISTRY QUIZ
6. (D) CH₄
7. (B) CO₂
8. (C) CO₂
9. (B) liver
10. (A) DNA replication

1. A laboratory technique used for the separation of a mixture in order to be analyzed and studied is known as
(A) nitrification
(B) chromatography
(C) catalysis
(D) fermentation

2. Which Chromatography technique is commonly used for analyzing the volatile substances?
(A) Paper Chromatography
(B) Liquid Chromatography
(C) Gas Chromatography
(D) Thin-layer Chromatography

3. The area of chemistry that is generally concerned with the measurement of chemicals in body fluids, such as blood and urine is known as
(A) biotechnology
(B) bioinformatics
(C) genetic engineering
(D) clinical chemistry

4. Use of biotechnology in food production refers to
(A) blue biotechnology
(B) white biotechnology
(C) green biotechnology
(D) yellow biotechnology

5. Bio-Chemistry is concerned with the study of the components of

(A) cells
(B) atoms
(C) molecules
(D) compounds

ANSWERS: BIO-CHEMISTRY MCQS
1. (B) chromatography
2. (C) Gas Chromatography
3. (D) clinical chemistry
4. (D) yellow biotechnology
5. (A) cells